Bunuel wrote:
A recent study suggests that not eating genetically modified foods can lead to a decreased risk of type 2 diabetes and heart disease. The study based this conclusion on the fact that individuals who ate only non genetically modified foods developed these conditions at lower rates than did individuals who ate both genetically modified and not genetically modified foods and concluded that the decreased risk of both diseases must be as a result of the individuals’ dietary differences.
Which of the following, if true, would weaken the conclusion that eating only non genetically modified foods leads to a lower risk of heart disease and type 2 diabetes?
A. Genetically modified foods also tend to be organically grown, a process that uses fewer pesticides and artificial fertilizers than does conventional agriculture.
B. Type II diabetes and heart disease are often exacerbated or triggered by poor diets, especially those high in processed grain-based foods and fat-heavy meat products.
C. It is possible that some individuals could be naturally resistant to developing both type 2 diabetes and heart disease regardless of diet.
D. Other studies have examined the effects of organic food on the risk of developing both diseases, but not on the effects of genetically modified food.
E. Individuals who do not eat genetically modified foods also tend to exercise and make other healthy lifestyle choices associated with a decreased risk of both diseases.
VERITAS PREP OFFICIAL SOLUTION:
As with any weaken question, your first goal should be to understand the argument presented and find the gap between the information given and the conclusion presented. In this argument, you are told that a study claims that not eating genetically modified foods (GMOs) leads to lower rates of type 2 diabetes and heart disease because people who didn't eat GMOs tend to develop type 2 diabetes and heart disease at a lower rate than do people who do eat GMOs.
The gap here is in the difference between correlation and causation. While there is a correlation between the behavior (not eating GMOs) and the outcome (not getting type 2 diabetes or heart disease), there is nothing that proves the outcome is due to the behavior. What if non-GMO foods were only available to individuals who were wealthy or who belonged to a specific ethnic group that developed both diseases at lower rates? The correct answer will exploit the gap between correlation and causation.
The only answer choice to do this is (E). If individuals who don't eat GMOs also engage in other activities known to lower the risk of both diseases, then it's impossible to tell if their decreased risk is due to the fact that they don't eat GMOs or the fact that they engage in these other activities. Maybe the cause of both (not eating GMOs and decreased risk) is their lifestyle, and those two effects are just correlated.
Among the other answers, (A) can be eliminated because there is no way to link the practice of using pesticides or artificial fertilizers to diabetes or heart disease. Choice (B) can be eliminated since it does not address anything to do with the conclusion, which is specifically about genetically modified foods. Choice (C) can also be eliminated for the same reason - there is no reason that these individuals wouldn't have shown up in both groups. Choice (D) can be eliminated as well since whether other studies have looked at this issue doesn't impact whether or not the conclusion is correct.